DMB Chordal Analyses

[StarSlight]

Also, when a slash separates two numerals, the preceding chord is functioning in the key of the following numeral. For example, the symbol V/vi in the key of C major would indicate an E chord. This is because E is the V chord of a minor, which is vi in C major.

I suppose this will make more sense to me when my theory class gets into modulation, but I don't think I fully understand how that works. Will the degree before the slash always indicate the chord's function in the relative minor and the degreee after it the chord's function in the original key?

Thanks very much for doing this, it's really cool.

[fatjack]

Also, when a slash separates two numerals, the preceding chord is functioning in the key of the following numeral. For example, the symbol V/vi in the key of C major would indicate an E chord. This is because E is the V chord of a minor, which is vi in C major.

I suppose this will make more sense to me when my theory class gets into modulation, but I don't think I fully understand how that works. Will the degree before the slash always indicate the chord's function in the relative minor and the degreee after it the chord's function in the original key?

Thanks very much for doing this, it's really cool.

no, it has nothing to do with the relative minor

and this technically is not modulation, its called tonicization. its basically the same thing as modulation, but only for one resolution.

by analyzing in such a way, Mahler is say that the D going to the G is actually in G major, but just temporarily.

try to think about it in the context of the entire song. the chorus just goes straight back to the verses right? so the last two chords going into the first chord of the verse would be: D G Bm

if you were to think about this in terms of D major, the functions would be I IV vi. that is not syntactically correct. a IV usually lead to a ii or a V, not a vi.

by analyzing like this, Mahler is creating tonicization. he moves from V to I (in G major), and then directly back to vi of D major. thats the difference between modulation and tonicization. since he went IMMEDIATELY resolved back to the key of I, its a tonicization. if the song went to the key of G and then just hung out there for a while, it would be modulation

any questions?

[gumbomadness]

Also, when a slash separates two numerals, the preceding chord is functioning in the key of the following numeral. For example, the symbol V/vi in the key of C major would indicate an E chord. This is because E is the V chord of a minor, which is vi in C major.

I suppose this will make more sense to me when my theory class gets into modulation, but I don't think I fully understand how that works. Will the degree before the slash always indicate the chord's function in the relative minor and the degreee after it the chord's function in the original key?

Thanks very much for doing this, it's really cool.

no, it has nothing to do with the relative minor

and this technically is not modulation, its called tonicization. its basically the same thing as modulation, but only for one resolution.

by analyzing in such a way, Mahler is say that the D going to the G is actually in G major, but just temporarily.

try to think about it in the context of the entire song. the chorus just goes straight back to the verses right? so the last two chords going into the first chord of the verse would be: D G Bm

if you were to think about this in terms of D major, the functions would be I IV vi. that is not syntactically correct. a IV usually lead to a ii or a V, not a vi.

by analyzing like this, Mahler is creating tonicization. he moves from V to I (in G major), and then directly back to vi of D major. thats the difference between modulation and tonicization. since he went IMMEDIATELY resolved back to the key of I, its a tonicization. if the song went to the key of G and then just hung out there for a while, it would be modulation

any questions?

how did you learn that?

[mrjones]

ok i know very little about theory, but i thought i would give this a shot

Say Goodbye
Into: A E/G# D A I V IV I
verse: A E/G# D I V VI
Chorus: B G#m7 A D/F# (dont know the chord progression for this)
"tommorrow, go back to being friends": G D I V

please comment and tell me what i did correct and what is wrong

[fatjack]

Also, when a slash separates two numerals, the preceding chord is functioning in the key of the following numeral. For example, the symbol V/vi in the key of C major would indicate an E chord. This is because E is the V chord of a minor, which is vi in C major.

I suppose this will make more sense to me when my theory class gets into modulation, but I don't think I fully understand how that works. Will the degree before the slash always indicate the chord's function in the relative minor and the degreee after it the chord's function in the original key?

Thanks very much for doing this, it's really cool.

no, it has nothing to do with the relative minor

and this technically is not modulation, its called tonicization. its basically the same thing as modulation, but only for one resolution.

by analyzing in such a way, Mahler is say that the D going to the G is actually in G major, but just temporarily.

try to think about it in the context of the entire song. the chorus just goes straight back to the verses right? so the last two chords going into the first chord of the verse would be: D G Bm

if you were to think about this in terms of D major, the functions would be I IV vi. that is not syntactically correct. a IV usually lead to a ii or a V, not a vi.

by analyzing like this, Mahler is creating tonicization. he moves from V to I (in G major), and then directly back to vi of D major. thats the difference between modulation and tonicization. since he went IMMEDIATELY resolved back to the key of I, its a tonicization. if the song went to the key of G and then just hung out there for a while, it would be modulation

any questions?

how did you learn that?

freshman theory

[MahlerGrooves]

ok i know very little about theory, but i thought i would give this a shot

Say Goodbye
Into: A E/G# D A I V IV I
verse: A E/G# D I V VI
Chorus: B G#m7 A D/F# (dont know the chord progression for this)
"tommorrow, go back to being friends": G D I V

please comment and tell me what i did correct and what is wrong

Some of it is good, but other parts need work. I am a bit like Kanter - he is ANAL about the accuracy of the tabs on this site, and I will be ANAL about the complete and total meticulous accuracy of each analysis.

The E/G# is really a V6, and the chorus needs functions.

I ask everyone's patience! I am packing to return to GErmany, but will post this week. I also think that by June, I will have an analysis for EVERY song on this site.

Thanks.

[MahlerGrooves]

and mahler, whats the deal with your cloud signature? Is it from a book or something..

it is from the song "Ueber den Wolken" by GErman folk singer Reinhardt Mai

[StarSlight]

no, it has nothing to do with the relative minor

and this technically is not modulation, its called tonicization. its basically the same thing as modulation, but only for one resolution.

by analyzing in such a way, Mahler is say that the D going to the G is actually in G major, but just temporarily.

try to think about it in the context of the entire song. the chorus just goes straight back to the verses right? so the last two chords going into the first chord of the verse would be: D G Bm

if you were to think about this in terms of D major, the functions would be I IV vi. that is not syntactically correct. a IV usually lead to a ii or a V, not a vi.

by analyzing like this, Mahler is creating tonicization. he moves from V to I (in G major), and then directly back to vi of D major. thats the difference between modulation and tonicization. since he went IMMEDIATELY resolved back to the key of I, its a tonicization. if the song went to the key of G and then just hung out there for a while, it would be modulation

any questions?

Thanks a ton, man, I think I get it now! What a cool concept. It all fits together perfectly. In Grey Street, every time it would be I - IV - vi (D G Bm), the I of D major functions temporarily as the V of D major's IV (G) before moving back to the vi (Bm) of D major.

But in the verse, where I6 - IV - Vadd4 (D/F# G Aadd4) occurs, it's left alone in the analysis because I IV V is a melodically strong progression, whereas I IV vi is not. And it absolutely cannot be a modulation because what would be I IV vi in D major is always followed by an A major chord, which is not in the key of G major.

Do I have the gist of it? Thanks again very much for explaining it.

[fatjack]

no, it has nothing to do with the relative minor

and this technically is not modulation, its called tonicization. its basically the same thing as modulation, but only for one resolution.

by analyzing in such a way, Mahler is say that the D going to the G is actually in G major, but just temporarily.

try to think about it in the context of the entire song. the chorus just goes straight back to the verses right? so the last two chords going into the first chord of the verse would be: D G Bm

if you were to think about this in terms of D major, the functions would be I IV vi. that is not syntactically correct. a IV usually lead to a ii or a V, not a vi.

by analyzing like this, Mahler is creating tonicization. he moves from V to I (in G major), and then directly back to vi of D major. thats the difference between modulation and tonicization. since he went IMMEDIATELY resolved back to the key of I, its a tonicization. if the song went to the key of G and then just hung out there for a while, it would be modulation

any questions?

Thanks a ton, man, I think I get it now! What a cool concept. It all fits together perfectly. In Grey Street, every time it would be I - IV - vi (D G Bm), the I of D major functions temporarily as the V of D major's IV (G) before moving back to the vi (Bm) of D major.

But in the verse, where I6 - IV - Vadd4 (D/F# G Aadd4) occurs, it's left alone in the analysis because I IV V is a melodically strong progression, whereas I IV vi is not. And it absolutely cannot be a modulation because what would be I IV vi in D major is always followed by an A major chord, which is not in the key of G major.

Do I have the gist of it? Thanks again very much for explaining it.

where is there a I IV vi in grey street?

[StarSlight]

The last two chords of the verse and the last two chords of the chorus (D and G) going into the first chord of the verse and chorus (Bm). I was saying that they would be I - IV - vi without the tonicization.

[MahlerGrooves]

The last two chords of the verse and the last two chords of the chorus (D and G) going into the first chord of the verse and chorus (Bm). I was saying that they would be I - IV - vi without the tonicization.

right, but you can't do "without the tonicization" as it totally changes the function of each chord. In the mind of a theorist, it is all connected and unbreakable and interdependent.

[fatjack]

The last two chords of the verse and the last two chords of the chorus (D and G) going into the first chord of the verse and chorus (Bm). I was saying that they would be I - IV - vi without the tonicization.

right, but you can't do "without the tonicization" as it totally changes the function of each chord. In the mind of a theorist, it is all connected and unbreakable and interdependent.

exactly, its not harmonically incorrect because there is no I IV vi, its the other progression

[StarSlight]

Thanks, guys. I really appreciate it.

[MahlerGrooves]

CAN WE PLEASE NOT LET THIS THREAD TURN CHILDISH! I am putting A LOT of work into these, and I would appreciate if this thread can be kept to questions about these analyses and the theory behind them.

Thank you.

EDIT: The "comments" have been deleted.

[mlb1399]

Wow, nice work. This is great! Thank you.